Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

my ex-husband and I got divorced officially in March of 2008. The house we once owned then was awarded to me and I had it solely put into my name. I still own the house but he just contacted me and said that the old insurance company we had from September 2003 to July 2008 sent a check with both of our names on it for over charging of payments. A lawsuit that was done against them and they had to pay all homeowners x amount of money. He said he deserves 1/2 of the check and wants to me come sign it so he can cash it and will write me a check. Is that true? If there was any debt that went back to when he lived their he didn't feel he should have to pay since I now own the house. So why should he get half?


Asked on 12/08/15, 12:44 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Thomas Daley KoonsFuller PC

Here are your choices:

1. Agree to split the money and get half the money.

2. Don't agree and just never cash the check and nobody gets any money.

3. File a motion for postdivorce division of a community asset and let the judge decide how to split the money. You'd probably spend more on legal fees than the refund, but I don't have any idea how much the refund is. Maybe it's worth a lawsuit.

I get your feelings that this is not fair, but your choices are limited.

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Answered on 1/16/16, 11:28 pm


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