Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

family violence

hi there,

im filing trough the courthaouse without any lawyres involved, since me and my ''ex'' spouse agree on evrything.

i filled out and gave my papers to the courthouse where an associate judge looks over them before we get a courtdate.

when i got the papers back there was an extra piece of paper saying ''Family violence has/has not happened.

does that mean that I have to write them a letter stating that there was no violence of any sort? thank you for your time


Asked on 7/28/06, 4:28 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
TC Langford Langford Law Office

Re: family violence

It means that the Final Decree of Divorce must include language that there has been no family violence.

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Answered on 8/02/06, 10:59 am


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