Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

The house was purchased by my spouse 6 months before we got married, and is in her name. We refinanced a year later and I was co-signer of the mortgage (house still in her name). We have been sharing all bills equally for over 6 years now (I hand her the money every payday). Lately, she announced that she is selling the house and moving in another one with the kids, and told me to find me a place to stay. I feel screwed. Does that house fall into community property, even though it was purchased before marriage? Do I legitimately have any claim on the house? We live in Texas and have two kids with us.

Thank you.


Asked on 9/29/12, 8:44 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Bob Leonard Bob Leonard Law Group, PLLC

The house is her separate property but the community may be entitled to reimbursement. You should see an attorney because you cannot get reimbursement unless you properly plead for it and properly put on the correct evidence.

Good luck.

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Answered on 9/30/12, 7:58 pm


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