Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

If a judge ruled on a divorce decree on Jan 15th and then changed his ruling on a different date when the previously ruled on decree was supposed to be signed, and with out a court reporter and in a jury room with only the two parties and attny's. Is this legal or is it a violation of judicial ethics?


Asked on 2/21/12, 2:31 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Mark Dunn Mark D. Dunn

Unfortunately, Judges do this sometimes. I don't believe it's ever been held to be a violation of ethics rules.

By the way, if there isn't a record made at the final hearing, the granting of a motion for new trial is automatic (you have to file it within 30 days after the order si ssigned).

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Answered on 2/21/12, 4:56 pm


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