Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

Normally the house would be community property because inception of title was during the marriage, but It sounds like you may have done enough to have a "separate property agreement" for the house. I can't give you a definitive answer without seeing the actual agreement/document that your husband signed.

You also asked if your husband has any rights. That is a pretty broad question, one thing that comes to mind is that your husband MAY have a claim for reimbursement from you because your income was used to pay for the mortgage on your separate property. This has been a well litigated topic and there are arguments both ways on this.

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Good Luck!

I would encourage you to talk to an experienced family law attorney in your county.

Yes, it should be your property.

However, often in a divorce, one spouse will give the other spouse some money to settle the cash. How much? Depends on many factors. Sometimes it is cheaper to just pay some cash to get a quick divorce instead of paying thousands of dollars in a litigated divorce.

That is why I encourage people to hire an experienced family law attorney that is knowledgeable about how the courts operate in your county. If the divorce drags on for 2-3 years and you are going to do extensive discovery, 2-3 mediations, depositions, numerous hearings, etc. it gets cheaper just to give one spouse some $$ and make the case go away instead of paying $$$$$$ in legal, counseling and professional fees.