Legal Question in Family Law in Texas
if you have a morality clause does it mean that no opposite sex can reside in the house after cetain hours. unless it is a family member? or do you have to have some knid of relationship with that person to be in contempt of court?
Asked on 3/24/10, 8:27 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
Mark Dunn
Mark D. Dunn
You need to read the specific terms of the "morality clause" and assume that it means exactly what it says (and if you can figure out a loophole, then it has a loophole). There's no such thing as a "standard" morality clause; they're all different. The wording is important. Some lawyers are better than others at drafting "tight language."
Answered on 3/29/10, 9:18 am