Legal Question in Family Law in Texas
If a petitioner for divorce is granted sole use of the residence and ordered to pay the mortgage. Then the petitioner moves out of the residence and purchases another residence before the final hearing. Is the respondent responsible to pay the mortgage and bills even though the respondent is not living in the residence and has not for months? This is in Texas and I don't know if that makes any difference.
1 Answer from Attorneys
Your question implies that there are at least temporary orders in place requiring one party to pay the mortgage payment. Until the Court changes its current order (if one actually exists) then the responsibility to pay the mortgage is per the order and it makes no difference that the party has vacated that residence. I am a board certified specuialist in the field of family law practicing in the Houston area. You can check out my website at www.brucezivley.com Contact me if you would like to discuss this matter further.
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