Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

Prenup

My daughter's fiancee who is from the Middle East wants to marry my daughter in an Islamic ceremony. In the Middle East, the marriage contract specifies an amount to be given to the wife in case of divorce. If an amount is specified, will it supersede community property laws in the State of Texas? Sometimes an amount is not specified, but is written as ''What is agreed upon''. Again, would this mean that he can decide not to give her anything in case of divorce? He does not have any assets at this point, but he is just starting his career as a surgeon, so it is expected that he will have a decent income and in the future there will be assets. Would my daughter be entitled to anything if they divorce?

Thanks


Asked on 12/27/05, 10:40 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
Gerald R. Yoakum The Practice of Gerald R. Yoakum, P.C. A Full Service Law Firm

Re: Prenup

Any form of prenup must be fair and just and be clear as to intent. What you described is not clear as to an amount. The answer to your question is it depends on the contract before she marries hire an attorney to review the contract.Good-Luck

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Answered on 12/27/05, 11:41 am


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