Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

Separate Property

I had a home prior to second marriage (August, 2001) with 7 years remaining on the mortgage. New husband began paying bills November, 2001. Marriage was disaster--verbally abusive and threatening; husband is an alcoholic. House sold early March and we have gone separate ways -- he to his original house at his business and me to a friend's. He wants $25,000 to have a 'nice, amicable divorce'. Is he entitled to any portion of monies from sale of my home?


Asked on 4/03/03, 9:26 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
Fran Brochstein Attorney & Mediator

Re: Separate Property

Unfortunately, the question that you have asked does not have a yes or no answer. The house was your separate property but in some circumstances he might be entitled to some of the money.

He can ask for a portion of the house's proceeds. Whether or not the judge grants his request, is a totally different matter.

If you need legal representation and live in the Houston area, please give me a call.

Fran Brochstein

www.FamilyLaw4u.com

713-847-6000

Read more
Answered on 4/03/03, 10:49 am


Related Questions & Answers

More Family Law, Divorce, Child Custody and Adoption questions and answers in Texas