Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

My spouse and I have currently lived together for 4 years we are not legally married but are considered common law however i am not a signer on the house am i still entitled to half the property?


Asked on 9/29/10, 8:20 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
Mark Dunn Mark D. Dunn

You'll need to explain why you "are considered common law."

Have you represented yourselves to others as being married?

Do you have an AGREEMENT to be married (that is, an agreement that you are married in the present tense)?

It makes a big difference.

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Answered on 10/04/10, 9:43 am


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