Legal Question in Family Law in Texas
Verbatim my alimony states " TERM - the payment will end 22 months from the date th first payment was made on June 1, 2011 being paid on the 1st day of the 22nd month." When I do the month the 22nd month from June 1, 2011 is April 1st and my ex husband is saying it was March 1st. Am I crazy?
1 Answer from Attorneys
It sounds like a very badly worded divorce decree. If the intent of the decree was that he make 22 payments to you, then he is done after he makes 22 payments. If he makes 22 payments beginning June 1, 2011, then his last payment would have been due March 1, 2013, as follows:
Pmt #..... Date
(1)�.. 6/1/2011
(2)�.. 7/1/2011
(3)�.. 8/1/2011
(4)�.. 9/1/2011
(5)�.. 10/1/2011
(6)�.. 11/1/2011
(7)�.. 12/1/2011
(8)�.. 1/1/2012
(9)�.. 2/1/2012
(10)�.. 3/1/2012
(11)�.. 4/1/2012
(12)�.. 5/1/2012
(13)�.. 6/1/2012
(14)�.. 7/1/2012
(15)�.. 8/1/2012
(16)�.. 9/1/2012
(17)�.. 10/1/2012
(18)�.. 11/1/2012
(19)�.. 12/1/2012
(20)�.. 1/1/2013
(21)�.. 2/1/2013
(22)�.. 3/1/2013
Related Questions & Answers
Looking for something else?
10,200 active attorneys ready to answer your legal questions today.
Featured Attorneys
Earn additional revenue and grow your business.
