Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

My wife and I are separated with intent to divorce. She has moved from Texas to Missouri. The reason for our split was due to her engaging in several emotional affairs.
Currently we've both stated that we don't want to get into a dispute through the divorce process and we don't have much in the way of assets and do have debt. I'm currently helping her with money and other bills until she finds employment. We don't have children and assets are typical but low, house, cars etc.... Debt is extensive and more than all of our assets combined.
My concern is that if she disagrees with the terms we've discussed and the divorce ends up being contested with the court somehow finding in her favor, that I'm setting a bad precedent by paying her bills and supplying money even now. With TX being a "no fault" state does the court force the higher earner to pay spousal support or alimony for a certain period of time? She hasn't worked for many years and plans to go back to work in Missouri but she won't have the means that I was able to provide so her quality of life will change.

Asked on 3/16/10, 10:31 am

Fran Brochstein Attorney & Mediator

0 users found helpful

0 attorneys agreed

You ask many complex questions that are cannot be answered via email.

I recommend that you pay an attorney a hourly fee and sit down and talk.

Good luck.

Answered on 3/21/10, 12:38 pm

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