Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Texas
i have a deed it reads "all right title and interest in and to real property in 5.0 acres......" does that mean I own the minerals???
Asked on 1/25/12, 6:23 pm
1 Answer from Attorneys
Joseph A. McDermott, III
Attorney at Law
Yes, unless 1) there's a mineral reservation elsewhere in the deed or 2) your seller did not own all or part of the minerals when he made the deed. In the latter case, he has breached his warranty and you may have a claim against him.
Answered on 1/26/12, 8:18 am