Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Texas
Homeowner
I have a friend that has a little over 100 acreas of land with 2 houses on it. He asked me to move into one of the houses 5 years ago and to help him oversee the property. The mobil home I moved into ended up needing replaced and I purchased a new double wide and moved it in where the other one was 3 years ago. Since this time, the owners wife has passed away and the owner has become incapacitated. He has always said that the 4 acreas that cotains the mobile home that I purchased would be given to me. The main property is for sale at this time and it is stated in the realtors contract that the acreage that I'm on is not included in the sale. I have called and writen letters to my friend to keep him abreast of the property from time to time and have not been allowed to speak with him personally. The daughter of this individual has moved him to another state where she can see to his health but does not allow anyone to talk to him. She contacted me today and told me that I need to consider moving off the property without any justification. I have nothing in writing from my friend other than the realtors contract stating the property will be presented to me at the time of the sale. Do I have any say in this matter?
1 Answer from Attorneys
Re: Homeowner
Since this involves real estate, promises must be in writing. You could argue part-performance in the services rendered, but it would be an expensive, difficult lawsuit, and you may lose. You may want to talk to an attorney.