Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Texas

Legal ownership real property

I'm--name removed--gay man and have been in--name removed--committed relationship with my partner for 16 years. We live and open gay live and consider ourselves married albeit not legally. Six years ago we had--name removed--home built in an expensive part of town for approx. $800k. The house was cash paid and not mortgaged. Today, comparitive reports put the value at approx. $1.3 to 1.4m. and could sale for that sum easily. We both are on the title/deed as we both executed these documents at closing. His contribution to the purchase of our home was pretty much all of $800k. We both worked to do extensive landscaping and have equally maintained the home to which added to the value. I am fair and would only consider, if we were to sale,--name removed--portion of the increase in value and none of the original sum of $800k. If the home sold today for $1.4m I would only want to consider the $500K + - increase of value portion, about $250K - half of $500k increase. We also have wills, general Pwr of Atty and Medical Pwr of Atty executed and filed properly. We also have--name removed--joint credit card. We do not have same sex partnership type agreement. What is my legal standing?


Asked on 9/02/05, 9:20 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys

Re: Legal ownership real property

I would need to look at various documents to specifically answer this but if everything was done proper, generally a sale between two owners would result in a splitting of the property after the initial investment is covered. Are you looking to sell or were you looking into the partnership agreements?

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Answered on 9/03/05, 8:49 pm


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