Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Texas

Question Regarding Owner Financing

My husband and I moved into a house under the assumption it would be owner financed, according to their sign. We were asked to submit $7,850 for closing costs which we did. We have lived in the house for almost a year and have yet to close, even though we've been told over and over again, that we were going to. We want to move, but the owner says he will only refund $3,000. What recourse do I have to get the rest of the closing costs back? We have never signed a contract, but did sign a 1/2 months lease for the 1/2 month we first moved in.


Asked on 6/19/07, 12:51 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys

Re: Question Regarding Owner Financing

You need to prove that the $7850 was for closing costs and not for rent. This will be a tall order if you don't have anything in writing. The agreement can be inferred form other wriritngs, however. For example, did you receive a receipt for the closing money? Did the receipt say what the money was for? What about a letter from the seller stating the purchase price?

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Answered on 6/19/07, 1:09 pm


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