Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Texas

We are refinancing a property in Texas and my processor is asking me if I will be in the title as my husband is the lone name in the title. What difference it makes if I am in the title?


Asked on 2/23/12, 8:11 am

2 Answers from Attorneys

Mark Dunn Mark D. Dunn

It makes a difference in how many names they type onto the deed.

As for whether or not it makes any difference otherwise, we'd need a lot more information, such as where did the money come from for the purchase?

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Answered on 2/23/12, 10:59 am
Donald McLeaish McLeaish&Associates;, P.C.

If property was owned by husband before marriage, it was and is his separate property and the loan his obligation. If ur husband wants u on the title and on the loan, it should convert the property to community property and both are obligated on the loan...and the lender will look to both for approval of making a loan...your "processor" should have informed both of you and both need to make the decision....call if we can help more

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Answered on 2/23/12, 2:01 pm


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