Legal Question in Family Law in Virginia

Not sure which category this would be but here goes:
As part of a divorce decree my ex-wife was given rights to a vehicle. I had then nor now any issue with this. Here is the situation though. The loan and tiltle of the car at that tme were in my name and my name only. The loan company stated under no circumstance would they add her to the loan or title as the loan would not have been approved with her on it. They also stated that she had no authority in regards to the account but would send notifications to her and me in regards to payments.
The loan was recently paid off and the loan company, without authorization from me, sent the title to her because she wanted it sent there. Now I am being told by her that if I don't come to her, about 6.5 away, to sign the title she will take me back to court.
My question is this, did the loan company have authority to send the title to her and does her having the tilte sent to her under false pretense (because my name is the only name on the title, it was not issued as a joint title and even if it was I never authorized them to issue a joint title) do I have any recourse I can take against either the company or her?

Asked on 4/16/11, 9:11 am

Michael Hendrickson Law Office Michael E. Hendrickson

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No, none at all (in my opinion). Your ex-wife through the divorce decree

apparently had what's called equitable title to or ownership of this vehicle

even if her name was never on the title or loan documents themselves.

Tell her to send the title to you in the mail and you will sign and return

it to her by the same means, keeping a copy of the title with your executed signature affixed thereto.

Answered on 4/16/11, 9:22 am

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