Legal Question in Civil Litigation in Virginia
If a contract says a party must be notified of something within 30 days, does that mean the party must receive the notification within 30 days? Or does it mean the notification must be sent within that time? Or, postmarked?
If it is sent and dated on the 30th day, postmarked on the 31st, and received on the 33rd, have they violated those terms?
Asked on 10/19/09, 3:48 pm
1 Answer from Attorneys
Michael Hendrickson
Law Office Michael E. Hendrickson
Probably, the party needs to have actually received it for the sender to be in full compliance, technically speaking.
No, probably not, in any material or substantive sense(in my opinion).
Answered on 10/25/09, 2:16 pm