Legal Question in Disability Law in California

My husband purchased the house we live in before we got married (in California). He was the only one on the title then. And now he refinanced for a lower rate. I was asked to sign a interspousal transfer deed so that the house is his sole and separate property. He is the only one on the loan. Does it put me in a situation that should we get divorced in the future, I have no rights to the house what so ever? Is this situation intended to put me out of consideration of any legal rights, or to protect me from financial burden?


Asked on 9/08/10, 11:27 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
Terry A. Nelson Nelson & Lawless

You got it. You waived any title rights to the house by signing. It was and is his separate property. HOWEVER, in a divorce you could claim community contribution and a share of the value.

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Answered on 9/13/10, 5:25 pm


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