Legal Question in Discrimination Law in California
I'm employed at a small family owned business with 15 employees. Previous to 2013 my employer paid 100% of our health insurance but no coverage for dependents. Near years end in 2013 my employer decided to hire two family members (Son and son in law, both with spouses and children.). Just prior to their employment my employer decided to start paying 100% insurance coverage for all employees including their families (wives and children). This practice also is applied to couples cohabiting together. My question is would this practice be discriminatory towards individuals who do not have a family because a married couple with children receive a much larger benefit compared to a single employee?
2 Answers from Attorneys
Just why would you think it is 'discriminatory??? You are being paid the same benefits as everyone else -- all family and dependents are covered. You just don't have any to cover.