Legal Question in Family Law in California
My ex-husband has a history of not taking our children when offered on first right of refusal for my work related travel(one to two times a year). I understand that if I offer the time to him and he refuses and I then need childcare, I can bill him for his share of the costs. To date, he has not paid any of his court ordered child care costs. This particular trip, while just being a day and a half, will include an overnight stay and I cannot afford
"typical" childcare, especially since he does not reimburse as ordered. Am I able to pay a relative to stay with my children and still bill the father for his share of the costs?
Thank you,
Lisa
Asked on 1/09/14, 12:00 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
Arlene Kock
Law Offices of Arlene D. Kock APLC
If the court order does not prohibit this child care arrangement, then it would be permissable.
Answered on 1/09/14, 7:16 am