Legal Question in Family Law in California
My wife filed an OSC to set aside the divorce Default Judgment (she didn't respond to the summon/petion and didn't appear at the Default Hearing). The Jugement allows me to keep all my separate assets/liabilities; she keep hers. She has exclusive occupancy of the family home - I continue to pay half of the mortgage + taxes+ insurance, until I retire in 2020 when I turn 65, the net proceeds will be divided equally.
In my response, do I need to restate the judgment stipulations?
Thank you very much.
4 Answers from Attorneys
If she filed a true OSC or motion to set aside the default and default judgment, she had to state the grounds for the request to set aside the default and default judgment. Normally, this is done via Motion rather than an OSC, and has her declaration along with Points & Authorities to support her position. It is difficult to advise you, but normally, the courts favor cases to be decided on the merits, and quite often grant motions to set aside default judgments if timely filed. Is there anything in particular that she disagrees with in the Default Judgment?
BARRY BESSER
www.besserlaw.com
You need to consult with an attorney to review the facts of the case and the recent filing to determine your best response.
From the zip code attached to this question, I presume you are located in Contra Costa County. In order to intelligently formulate a response to your wife's motion, I urge you to meet with an attorney to review the pleadings and provide an opinion. My offices are located in San Ramon CA and I offer a free consultation. My office number is 925-743-8666
She should have filed a motion to vacate the judgment and corresponding default, not an OSC. OSC's are frequently misused in family law. You need to be focused on the grounds she articulates for setting aside the default and default judgment, not the fairness of the judgment itself.