Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California
If a person has been paying the mortgage on a house for 10 years or more by sending a check from there bank (bank check) and that person is not on the deed to the property but has a contract with the people that are on the deed that the person making payments is the real owner.But now the people on the deed will not grant the property to the one paying the payments and it's causing financial problems, what legal action do they have? Please Help. Thank You.
2 Answers from Attorneys
You have the grounds for a lawsuit for your financial damages, and maybe even for 'specific performance' regarding title transfer, subject to you being able to prove the case with admissible and credible documentary evidence. If serious about getting legal counsel to help you in this, feel free to contact me.
Unfortunately as the law favors clear written and recorded property interests, their are laws called the statute of frauds and the parole evidence rule that will operate against you in this litigation. Therefore an office experienced in this particular issue is essential. This is one such office. Contact us directly,
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