Legal Question in Personal Injury in Florida
At the time of our marriage my spouse had a slip and fall at work. It was very soon found that this certain building's maint. company could not be sued because of some clause in that city where the building was located. And the company my spouse worked for could not be sues either. So my spouse was on workman's comp for this and still is I'm pretty sure - there may be a suit for this, but I was told I would not be entitled to any of the money because it is workman's comp. and I understand.
Some time later(months or a year aprox.) my spouse slipped and fell at the same job, but at a different building where the maint. company could be sued. This looks fishy, but my spouse swore it was a true accident. However, my spouse never told me that my spouse had gotten a lawyer for this accident. About a year or two after this we were divorced, but I never knew about the Law suit although I suspected there was one.
I just found out today that my spouse may have won the law suit (I do not believe it was a workman's comp. suit, but against the maint company) and because it happened while we were married would I be entitled to any of the money? The suit was settled back in April of 2009 so if there was money it is most likely spent or hidden by now.
Thank you for any advise.
2 Answers from Attorneys
No. You made no claim for loss of services.
No. The suit was for your husband's injury. You have a claim for lost consortium if 4 years from the fall has not passed (a shorter period can apply); however, with your divorce, your claim is not really worth too much, if anything.
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