Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Florida

If I sell real estate in Florida to in individual and take back a purchase money mortgage from that individual and that individual subsequently adds another person who is legally married but separated on to the title without obtaining my consent and it is both their homestead, will I be able to foreclose against any and all parties who are at that time in title or have a valid interest (say by marriage) or will I unwillingly become "co-owners" with someone?


Asked on 8/04/17, 2:01 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Barry Stein De Cardenas, Freixas, Stein & Zachary

You can foreclose on all individuals who own the property at the time of default.

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Answered on 8/04/17, 2:11 pm


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