Legal Question in Wills and Trusts in New York

Giving consent for a spouse

If mother provides a codicil in her estate saying that her daughter may only inherit her estate if she signs a waiver promsong that her spouse and her children will never initiate any legal action against the business holdings of the mother and the duaghter signs such a waiver, is her husband then enjoined from suing the business interests of the mother even though he himself never signs such a waiver? In other words is the contract signed by a person legally binding on the spouse? Furthernore would such a contract be legally binding on the offspring once they reach adult age, even though in both cases no OVERT ( i.e. waivers of consent ) were signed by either the spuse or the offspring?


Asked on 9/21/03, 7:58 pm

4 Answers from Attorneys

Walter LeVine Walter D. LeVine, Esq.

Re: Giving consent for a spouse

The waiver is only binding on the signatory, unless the signatory signs in a representative capacity (e.g., a guardian for minor children). A subsequent litigation may raise these questions and, depending upon the nature of the claim, you could anticipate that some litigation may arise if there is a claim and defense asserted in the future.

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Answered on 9/23/03, 12:29 pm
Norman Nadel Norman Nadel, Esq.

Re: Giving consent for a spouse

Only the party signing the agreement that you described would be bound by its provisions. It could not obligate a non-signer.

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Answered on 9/22/03, 8:46 am
Arnold Nager Arnold H. Nager, Esquire

Re: Giving consent for a spouse

Although not binding on the spouse or children, their initiating a claim would result in disinheriting the daughter

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Answered on 9/23/03, 2:29 pm
Andrew Nitzberg Andrew Nitzberg & Associates

Re: Giving consent for a spouse

This is a good law school examination question. I believe I can give you some definite answers.

Absent fraud or an illegal purpose, if the spouse or children initiate a legal action against the mother or business of the mother, then the daughter will lose the part of her inheritence not controlled by law.

This does not mean that these persons may not bring an action, but only that the codicil will be given effect if they do. If they bring an action, the daughter may lose the greater part of her inheritence under the will.

However, if there is no will or the will is invalid, then the codicil will have no effect.

Also, if the action by the spouse/child of the daughter is based on a fraud against them or their interests, then the codicil will probably not be given effect. The daughter will inherit.

I hope my response has been helpful. You are welcome to a longer consultation for no fee at my offices at 42 West 44th Street, NY,NY. Please call (646) 591-5786 for an appointment first.

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Answered on 9/22/03, 5:09 pm


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