Legal Question in Family Law in Oregon
Domestic Violence jurisdiction
I am a participating attorney on LawGuru. A client of mine who lives in WA was served with an OR Restraining Order to Prevent Abuse which alleged no acts committed in OR nor was there any other basis for in personam jurisdiction alleged. (In fact, the FAPA form does not even request such information.)
(1) On what basis would an OR judge find jurisdiction to sign such an order?
(2) Does OR allow my client to specially appear to object to jurisdiction without submitting himself to OR jurisdiction?
Asked on 6/06/08, 3:05 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
Amir John Showrai
The Pacific Law Firm, PLLC
Re: Domestic Violence jurisdiction
You should repost for the proper state, because this showed up in my inbox, and I'm a WA attorney too.
Answered on 6/06/08, 6:31 pm