Legal Question in Family Law in Colorado
Negating a court order
My ex-wife and I were divorced in June of 2007. I was ordered to continue payments on the car she had at that time, and she was to have paid me for my share of the household furnishings as well as half of the house should she sell it.
She has since traded the car I was paying for and purchased a new one, and she also refinanced the house.
Now that she no longer has the car for which I was ordered to pay, am I still responsible for paying the car payments? And in refinancing the house and having it put in her name, would that constitue a sale for which she should now pay me my share?
Thank you so much for a timely response.
1 Answer from Attorneys
Re: Negating a court order
More information is needed about the car situation. Was it an informal kind of trade, where the account on the car is still open and payable by her/you? Or was it a formal trade-in? It if was a formal trade-in or sale, it should have been paid off. If the debt is still in existence, you still need to make those payments.
As I understand your description, I don't believe her simple refinancing of the house would constitute a sale for purposes of your decree.
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